Describe a natural disaster
thay hai chuyen luyen thi ielts co bao dam 0984467000
'Tsunami', or 'harbour wave' in Japanese which is caused by earthquakes which occur under the sea bed, although a few are also caused by underwater volcanic eruptions, devastating coastal areas
While they're in the open sea, tsunami waves are generally quite small, rarely more than half a metre high, in fact. That usually surprises people. It's only when they reach the shore that tsunami waves reach such enormous heights. As far as I know, the largest tsunami ever recorded was 64 metres high. It's also worth noting that tsunami have extremely long wavelengths. Such a wave travels at well over 800 kilometres per hour (500 mph).
And 2006 , the Tsunami in Thailand was the worst natural disaster to ever hit the country, causing loss of life as well as major damage to property, the environment and the economy. The severe impact on the natural environment in turn had serious consequences on the fishing and tourism industries and, therefore, thousands of families' livelihoods.
Thứ Hai, 20 tháng 9, 2010
Thứ Bảy, 18 tháng 9, 2010
IELTS READING TEST 17
READING PASSAGE 3
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM 0984467000
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3.
The Search for Fresh Water
The assertion that water has always been the essence of life is nothing new. Water comes in many forms: spring water, sea and river water, rainwater, and fog and dew water. Yet water is becoming scarce and this scarcity is becoming a very real worry for governments all around the world. The reality is that one of the main obstacles to the economic development of a particular country is its lack of an adequate supply of fresh water. Current figures show that an inhabitant of a wealthy, modern town, consumes 100–400 litres of water daily. In some developing countries the amount of water consumed does not exceed 20-30 liters per day. Rich or poor, annual water consumption has continued to grow, increasing fourfold over the last 50 years.
The world’s fresh water supplies are drawn from a number of sources. The largest cache of the estimated 35 million km³ fresh water reserve is located in glaciers and snow. The amount contained in these ‘storehouses’ has been estimated to be around 24 million km³. Ground water is also a big contributor to the world’s fresh water supplies amounting to an estimated 10.5 million km³. Considering that the total volume of water, salt and fresh, is estimated to be around 400 million km³ it can be clearly seen that the amount of fresh water available in the world is only the proverbial ‘drop in the bucket’. Artesian wells, rivers and lakes only account for about 0.1 and 0.5 million km³ respectively, all of which include atmospheric precipitation such as rain and snow.
Since water is such an important commodity, various attempts to acquire stores of it have been tried with varying degrees of success. The question of what are the alternative water sources available to us today is not an easy one to answer but is certainly worthy of our best efforts to find one. One such area of interest has been desalination - the turning of salt water into drinkable water. As there is much more salt water on the earth than dry land, the idea of using desalinated seawater seems a logical one. However, some estimates put the annual quantity of desalinated water at only around ten cubic kilometers – a tiny amount given the amount of sea water available. In parts of Senegal, for example, the greenhouse effect has been one way to desalinate seawater whereby the salt in the water is separated from the water through a process of evaporation. As part of the process, water vapour forms on large panes of glass at outside air temperature and is transported via gravity into drums. This method yields only a few cubic meters per day of fresh water but is surprisingly energy efficient. In larger scale production however, the energy efficiency plummets. The best systems burn at least a tonne of fossil fuel to produce approximately one hundred cubic metres of fresh water. This amounts to almost $1 per cubic metre – a considerable cost.
Although there are several different areas from which water can be sourced, paradoxically the most extensive are the most difficult to tap. The atmosphere, for example, contains vast amounts of fresh water composed of 2% condensed water in the form of clouds and 98% water vapour. The vastness of this water source is comparable to the renewable liquid water resources of all inhabited lands. The amounts are easy to calculate, but being able and knowing how to economically obtain this water in liquid form is most challenging. One approach in drawing water from the atmosphere is fog nets. Places such as the coastal deserts of West Africa and areas of Chile and Peru have favourable condensation conditions. In these areas, ocean humidity condenses in the form of fog on the mid-range mountains (over 500m). This fog composed of droplets of suspended water can be collected in nets. In the 1960s, a University in Northern Chile conducted the first major experiments with fog nets. Drawing on the knowledge gained from these experiments, further testing was done which culminated in one village using fog nets to yield a healthy daily average of 11,000 litres of water. On a smaller scale, fog-collecting nets have recently been used in the Canary Islands and Namibia.
Unfortunately, due to its need for a combination of several factors, fog is not readily available. Dew however appears far more frequently and is less subject to the constraints of climate and geography. In order for dew to form there needs to be some humidity in the air and a reasonably clear sky. Many hot areas of countries that suffer from a lack of water such as the Sahel region of Northern Africa for example, experience significant quantities of dew. When the temperature is lowered over a short space of time by ten degrees or so, the water-harvesting possibilities from the air yield an amazing ten grams of water from each cubic meter of air - significant drops in air temperature make for greater yields. Unlike fog, dew formation can occur even in a relatively dry atmosphere, such as a desert. All it takes is for the right mix of temperatures between the earth and the air to combine and dew formation occurs.
Questions 27 - 29
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D Write your answers in boxes 27-29 on your answer sheet.
27 As a method of obtaining fresh water, fog
A forms best when the air is dry.
B is easier to collect than dew.
C is being tried in a large-scale way in Senegal.
D is not easy to collect.
28 Small-scale ‘greenhouse effect’ desalination
A uses a considerable amount of energy.
B is the most effective way to obtain larger water reserves.
C uses very little energy.
D burns quite a lot of fossil fuel.
29 One of the largest stores of fresh water in the world is
A rivers and lakes.
B atmospheric rain and snow.
C ground water.
D artesian wells.
Questions 30 – 34
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F from the box below.
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 30-34 on your answer sheet.
30 Turning salt water into drinking water
31 Large-scale fresh water production through evaporation
32 Water available in the atmosphere
33 The use of dew as a water source
34 The amount of water collected from dew
A
B
C
D
E
F is quite popular due to it not being too affected by temperature and location.
is being tried via an evaporation process.
is not energy efficient.
is best for poorer countries.
is made up of both clouds and water vapour.
is increased when temperatures fall rapidly.
Questions 35 – 40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
35 The amount of water consumed by wealthier countries is just as much as poorer countries.
36 Glaciers, rivers, artesian wells and ground water are all sources of fresh water.
37 Large bodies of water such as the sea, have yielded the most fresh water.
38 The collection of water through the use of fog nets is becoming increasingly more popular around the world.
39 If the sky is cloudy, dew will not form.
40 Dew and fog are major sources of water in smaller villages and isolated areas.
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM 0984467000
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3.
The Search for Fresh Water
The assertion that water has always been the essence of life is nothing new. Water comes in many forms: spring water, sea and river water, rainwater, and fog and dew water. Yet water is becoming scarce and this scarcity is becoming a very real worry for governments all around the world. The reality is that one of the main obstacles to the economic development of a particular country is its lack of an adequate supply of fresh water. Current figures show that an inhabitant of a wealthy, modern town, consumes 100–400 litres of water daily. In some developing countries the amount of water consumed does not exceed 20-30 liters per day. Rich or poor, annual water consumption has continued to grow, increasing fourfold over the last 50 years.
The world’s fresh water supplies are drawn from a number of sources. The largest cache of the estimated 35 million km³ fresh water reserve is located in glaciers and snow. The amount contained in these ‘storehouses’ has been estimated to be around 24 million km³. Ground water is also a big contributor to the world’s fresh water supplies amounting to an estimated 10.5 million km³. Considering that the total volume of water, salt and fresh, is estimated to be around 400 million km³ it can be clearly seen that the amount of fresh water available in the world is only the proverbial ‘drop in the bucket’. Artesian wells, rivers and lakes only account for about 0.1 and 0.5 million km³ respectively, all of which include atmospheric precipitation such as rain and snow.
Since water is such an important commodity, various attempts to acquire stores of it have been tried with varying degrees of success. The question of what are the alternative water sources available to us today is not an easy one to answer but is certainly worthy of our best efforts to find one. One such area of interest has been desalination - the turning of salt water into drinkable water. As there is much more salt water on the earth than dry land, the idea of using desalinated seawater seems a logical one. However, some estimates put the annual quantity of desalinated water at only around ten cubic kilometers – a tiny amount given the amount of sea water available. In parts of Senegal, for example, the greenhouse effect has been one way to desalinate seawater whereby the salt in the water is separated from the water through a process of evaporation. As part of the process, water vapour forms on large panes of glass at outside air temperature and is transported via gravity into drums. This method yields only a few cubic meters per day of fresh water but is surprisingly energy efficient. In larger scale production however, the energy efficiency plummets. The best systems burn at least a tonne of fossil fuel to produce approximately one hundred cubic metres of fresh water. This amounts to almost $1 per cubic metre – a considerable cost.
Although there are several different areas from which water can be sourced, paradoxically the most extensive are the most difficult to tap. The atmosphere, for example, contains vast amounts of fresh water composed of 2% condensed water in the form of clouds and 98% water vapour. The vastness of this water source is comparable to the renewable liquid water resources of all inhabited lands. The amounts are easy to calculate, but being able and knowing how to economically obtain this water in liquid form is most challenging. One approach in drawing water from the atmosphere is fog nets. Places such as the coastal deserts of West Africa and areas of Chile and Peru have favourable condensation conditions. In these areas, ocean humidity condenses in the form of fog on the mid-range mountains (over 500m). This fog composed of droplets of suspended water can be collected in nets. In the 1960s, a University in Northern Chile conducted the first major experiments with fog nets. Drawing on the knowledge gained from these experiments, further testing was done which culminated in one village using fog nets to yield a healthy daily average of 11,000 litres of water. On a smaller scale, fog-collecting nets have recently been used in the Canary Islands and Namibia.
Unfortunately, due to its need for a combination of several factors, fog is not readily available. Dew however appears far more frequently and is less subject to the constraints of climate and geography. In order for dew to form there needs to be some humidity in the air and a reasonably clear sky. Many hot areas of countries that suffer from a lack of water such as the Sahel region of Northern Africa for example, experience significant quantities of dew. When the temperature is lowered over a short space of time by ten degrees or so, the water-harvesting possibilities from the air yield an amazing ten grams of water from each cubic meter of air - significant drops in air temperature make for greater yields. Unlike fog, dew formation can occur even in a relatively dry atmosphere, such as a desert. All it takes is for the right mix of temperatures between the earth and the air to combine and dew formation occurs.
Questions 27 - 29
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D Write your answers in boxes 27-29 on your answer sheet.
27 As a method of obtaining fresh water, fog
A forms best when the air is dry.
B is easier to collect than dew.
C is being tried in a large-scale way in Senegal.
D is not easy to collect.
28 Small-scale ‘greenhouse effect’ desalination
A uses a considerable amount of energy.
B is the most effective way to obtain larger water reserves.
C uses very little energy.
D burns quite a lot of fossil fuel.
29 One of the largest stores of fresh water in the world is
A rivers and lakes.
B atmospheric rain and snow.
C ground water.
D artesian wells.
Questions 30 – 34
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F from the box below.
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 30-34 on your answer sheet.
30 Turning salt water into drinking water
31 Large-scale fresh water production through evaporation
32 Water available in the atmosphere
33 The use of dew as a water source
34 The amount of water collected from dew
A
B
C
D
E
F is quite popular due to it not being too affected by temperature and location.
is being tried via an evaporation process.
is not energy efficient.
is best for poorer countries.
is made up of both clouds and water vapour.
is increased when temperatures fall rapidly.
Questions 35 – 40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
35 The amount of water consumed by wealthier countries is just as much as poorer countries.
36 Glaciers, rivers, artesian wells and ground water are all sources of fresh water.
37 Large bodies of water such as the sea, have yielded the most fresh water.
38 The collection of water through the use of fog nets is becoming increasingly more popular around the world.
39 If the sky is cloudy, dew will not form.
40 Dew and fog are major sources of water in smaller villages and isolated areas.
IELTS READING TEST 16
READING PASSAGE 2
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN TI IELTS CO BAO DAM 0984467000
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2.
Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-ix in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
viii
ix
x Research into short periods of sleep
Famous people, short sleepers
Measuring sleep movement
Sleep experiments over the past century
Monitoring the effects of sleep deprivation
Antarctic and Arctic sleep means quality sleep
Challenging research in reduced normal sleeping hours
Are we getting enough sleep?
The impact of noise on sleep
Sleep experiments in an isolated area
Example
Paragraph A Answer
viii
14 Paragraph B
15 Paragraph C
16 Paragraph D
17 Paragraph E
18 Paragraph F
A Almost every living creature sleeps. For humans, it is typically something we dislike doing when we are younger and, as we age, something we increasingly look forward to at the end of each day. On the one hand, it is something that we absolutely need to sustain our life and on the other, we tend to feel guilty if we spend more time in bed than we should. Sleep researcher Professor Stanley Limpton believes that 7 hours - the average amount of sleep most people get per night - is not enough. Limpton points out that the average person is now getting 2 hours less sleep than those who lived 100 years ago and contends that this lack of sleep is one of the main reasons so many people are often clumsy, unhappy, irritable and agitated. Other scientists share Limpton’s thinking. Many other researchers feel that we are not getting enough sleep and the negative impacts are being regularly felt around the world in the workplace and in the home.
B The first experiments in recorded scientific history on the effects of people not getting enough sleep took place in the late 1800s. According to records, three volunteers were deprived of sleep for a total of 90 hours. Later on, in 1920 more experiments in sleep deprivation were conducted by scientists where several people were deprived of sleep for a period of 60 hours. The results of many sleep deprivation experiments have been recorded and conducted by American ‘sleep scientist’ Nathaniel Kleitman. Often referred to as ‘the father of modern sleep research’, Kleitman’s work has formed the foundation for many areas of current sleep research. In one experiment, Kleitman examined thirty five volunteers who had been awake for 60 hours and also conducted an experiment on himself, remaining awake for a total of 100 hours. It was revealed that people who are sleep-deprived for periods of more than 60 hours try to fall asleep in any environment and show signs of mental disturbances, visions and hallucinations. As the length of sleep deprivation increases, so too does the mental decline in an individual. Having studied a group of 3 sleep deprived people, sleep researcher Dr Tim Oswald, concluded that chronic sleep deprivation often leads to drastic consequences. Oswald’s experiments reinstated the necessity of sleep for proper human functioning.
C Studies of sleep patterns in some of the more remote areas of the world have also been a subject of interest amongst sleep researchers. It is well-known that during the summer months in both the Arctic and Antarctic Circles the phenomenon known as the midnight sun occurs. Given fair weather conditions, the sun is visible for a continuous 24 hours. One summer, Dr Peter Suedfeld traveled to the Arctic and conducted a series of research projects. All participants were required to get rid of all clocks, watches and any other timekeeping devices and conduct work and sleep according to their own ‘body clock’. Those involved in the experiment were required to note down when they had a nap and when they actually went to bed. The results were that most people slept around 10 hours per day and all participants reported feeling completely invigorated and refreshed.
D The affect of sleep interruptions have also been a focal point of some sleep research. In urban societies, traffic and aircraft noise are often referred to as ‘the bane of urban existence’. Tom Grimstead took people who were classified as ‘good sleepers’ from quiet neighbourhoods and introduced into their bedrooms and night the noise equivalents of a major urban road. An actimeter – a device which measures the amount of movement in sleep - was used to gauge the quality of the participant’s sleep. The participants emerged from the experiment in a depressed-like state after four days. Grimstead reported that participants ‘had depression and mood scores similar to people with clinical depression…a reduction in certain performance tasks was also noted’.
E Another area of interest in the field of sleep study involves such famous people as Thomas Edison and Winston Churchill who, reportedly, were known to be and have been classified as short sleepers. A short sleeper is one who claims to be able to get by with only 4 or 5 hours of sleep per night. Dr David Joske, secretary of the British Sleep Association believes that ‘genetically short sleepers may have some natural resistance to the effects of sleep deprivation but it is not entirely certain why some people seem to require more and others less’. Determining what makes up the differences between short and long sleepers has been difficult for researchers. Says Joske, ‘When we brought long and short sleepers into controlled environments which were dark and soundproof we found that all participants slept between nine and ten hours, which seemed to preclude the short sleeper category.’
F A study in Norway was undertaken on a number of bus drivers. They were hooked up to various computers which monitored their states of being awake. The study revealed that bus drivers were asleep for as much as 25% of the time they were driving the bus. What the drivers were having was a series of ‘micro-sleeps’ – short periods of time of 10 to 20 seconds where they would be classified as being asleep. In the micro-sleep state, the individual may appear awake, even with their eyes open but in fact they are actually sleeping.
Questions 19-23
Look at the following list of statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct company.
Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
19 People need to increase their average amount of sleep.
20 Extended periods of no sleep causes serious health problems.
21 Some need more sleep and others seem to get by with less sleep.
22 The quality of sleep can be measured by an individual’s sleep activity.
23 Most people need to sleep the same number of hours.
List of researchers
A
B
C
D David Joske
Stanley Limpton
Tim Oswald
Tom Grimstead
Questions 24 and 25
Choose TWO letters A-F.
Write your answers in boxes 24 and 25 on your answer sheet.
The list below lists some health issues associated with lack of sleep.
Which TWO of these health issues are mentioned by the writer?
A heart problems
B nervous disorders
C dizziness
D depression
E problems with mental state
F increased blood pressure
Question 26
Choose the correct letter, A-E
Write the correct letter in box 26 on your answer sheet.
Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2?
A The importance of sleep
B Studies in sleep
C How much sleep we need
D The effect of sleep patterns
E Modern perspectives on sleep
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN TI IELTS CO BAO DAM 0984467000
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2.
Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-ix in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
viii
ix
x Research into short periods of sleep
Famous people, short sleepers
Measuring sleep movement
Sleep experiments over the past century
Monitoring the effects of sleep deprivation
Antarctic and Arctic sleep means quality sleep
Challenging research in reduced normal sleeping hours
Are we getting enough sleep?
The impact of noise on sleep
Sleep experiments in an isolated area
Example
Paragraph A Answer
viii
14 Paragraph B
15 Paragraph C
16 Paragraph D
17 Paragraph E
18 Paragraph F
A Almost every living creature sleeps. For humans, it is typically something we dislike doing when we are younger and, as we age, something we increasingly look forward to at the end of each day. On the one hand, it is something that we absolutely need to sustain our life and on the other, we tend to feel guilty if we spend more time in bed than we should. Sleep researcher Professor Stanley Limpton believes that 7 hours - the average amount of sleep most people get per night - is not enough. Limpton points out that the average person is now getting 2 hours less sleep than those who lived 100 years ago and contends that this lack of sleep is one of the main reasons so many people are often clumsy, unhappy, irritable and agitated. Other scientists share Limpton’s thinking. Many other researchers feel that we are not getting enough sleep and the negative impacts are being regularly felt around the world in the workplace and in the home.
B The first experiments in recorded scientific history on the effects of people not getting enough sleep took place in the late 1800s. According to records, three volunteers were deprived of sleep for a total of 90 hours. Later on, in 1920 more experiments in sleep deprivation were conducted by scientists where several people were deprived of sleep for a period of 60 hours. The results of many sleep deprivation experiments have been recorded and conducted by American ‘sleep scientist’ Nathaniel Kleitman. Often referred to as ‘the father of modern sleep research’, Kleitman’s work has formed the foundation for many areas of current sleep research. In one experiment, Kleitman examined thirty five volunteers who had been awake for 60 hours and also conducted an experiment on himself, remaining awake for a total of 100 hours. It was revealed that people who are sleep-deprived for periods of more than 60 hours try to fall asleep in any environment and show signs of mental disturbances, visions and hallucinations. As the length of sleep deprivation increases, so too does the mental decline in an individual. Having studied a group of 3 sleep deprived people, sleep researcher Dr Tim Oswald, concluded that chronic sleep deprivation often leads to drastic consequences. Oswald’s experiments reinstated the necessity of sleep for proper human functioning.
C Studies of sleep patterns in some of the more remote areas of the world have also been a subject of interest amongst sleep researchers. It is well-known that during the summer months in both the Arctic and Antarctic Circles the phenomenon known as the midnight sun occurs. Given fair weather conditions, the sun is visible for a continuous 24 hours. One summer, Dr Peter Suedfeld traveled to the Arctic and conducted a series of research projects. All participants were required to get rid of all clocks, watches and any other timekeeping devices and conduct work and sleep according to their own ‘body clock’. Those involved in the experiment were required to note down when they had a nap and when they actually went to bed. The results were that most people slept around 10 hours per day and all participants reported feeling completely invigorated and refreshed.
D The affect of sleep interruptions have also been a focal point of some sleep research. In urban societies, traffic and aircraft noise are often referred to as ‘the bane of urban existence’. Tom Grimstead took people who were classified as ‘good sleepers’ from quiet neighbourhoods and introduced into their bedrooms and night the noise equivalents of a major urban road. An actimeter – a device which measures the amount of movement in sleep - was used to gauge the quality of the participant’s sleep. The participants emerged from the experiment in a depressed-like state after four days. Grimstead reported that participants ‘had depression and mood scores similar to people with clinical depression…a reduction in certain performance tasks was also noted’.
E Another area of interest in the field of sleep study involves such famous people as Thomas Edison and Winston Churchill who, reportedly, were known to be and have been classified as short sleepers. A short sleeper is one who claims to be able to get by with only 4 or 5 hours of sleep per night. Dr David Joske, secretary of the British Sleep Association believes that ‘genetically short sleepers may have some natural resistance to the effects of sleep deprivation but it is not entirely certain why some people seem to require more and others less’. Determining what makes up the differences between short and long sleepers has been difficult for researchers. Says Joske, ‘When we brought long and short sleepers into controlled environments which were dark and soundproof we found that all participants slept between nine and ten hours, which seemed to preclude the short sleeper category.’
F A study in Norway was undertaken on a number of bus drivers. They were hooked up to various computers which monitored their states of being awake. The study revealed that bus drivers were asleep for as much as 25% of the time they were driving the bus. What the drivers were having was a series of ‘micro-sleeps’ – short periods of time of 10 to 20 seconds where they would be classified as being asleep. In the micro-sleep state, the individual may appear awake, even with their eyes open but in fact they are actually sleeping.
Questions 19-23
Look at the following list of statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct company.
Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
19 People need to increase their average amount of sleep.
20 Extended periods of no sleep causes serious health problems.
21 Some need more sleep and others seem to get by with less sleep.
22 The quality of sleep can be measured by an individual’s sleep activity.
23 Most people need to sleep the same number of hours.
List of researchers
A
B
C
D David Joske
Stanley Limpton
Tim Oswald
Tom Grimstead
Questions 24 and 25
Choose TWO letters A-F.
Write your answers in boxes 24 and 25 on your answer sheet.
The list below lists some health issues associated with lack of sleep.
Which TWO of these health issues are mentioned by the writer?
A heart problems
B nervous disorders
C dizziness
D depression
E problems with mental state
F increased blood pressure
Question 26
Choose the correct letter, A-E
Write the correct letter in box 26 on your answer sheet.
Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2?
A The importance of sleep
B Studies in sleep
C How much sleep we need
D The effect of sleep patterns
E Modern perspectives on sleep
READING TEST 15
Practice Reading Test 100
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS 0984467000
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage 1.
Australia's Platypus
Of all the creatures on the earth, the Australian platypus, Ornithorhynchus paradoxus, is perhaps one of the most mysterious and reclusive. Derived from the Latin platys meaning ‘flat and broad’ and pous meaning ‘foot’, the platypus has long been an iconic symbol of Australia. Upon being discovered in Australia in the 1700s, sketches of this unusual creature were made and sent back to England whereupon they were considered by experts to be a hoax. Indeed, the incredible collection of its body parts – broad, flat tail, rubbery snout, webbed feet and short dense fur – make it one of the world’s most unusual animals.
Officially classified as a mammal, the egg-laying platypus is mostly active during the night, a nocturnal animal. As if this combination of characteristics and behaviours were not unusual enough, the platypus is the only Australian mammal known to be venomous. The male platypus has a sharply pointed, moveable spur on its hind foot which delivers a poison capable of killing smaller animals and causing severe pain to humans. The spur - about 2 centimetres in length - is quite similar to the fang of a snake and, if provoked, is used as a means of defence. Those who have been stung by a platypus’ spur report an immediate swelling around the wound followed by increased swelling throughout the affected limb. Excruciating, almost paralysing pain in the affected area accompanies the sting which, in some victims has been known to last for a period of months. One report from a victim who was stung in the palm of the hand states that “…the spur could not be pulled out of the hand until the platypus was killed.” During the breeding season, the amount of venom in the male platypus increases. This has led some zoologists to theorise that the poisonous spur is primarily for asserting dominance amongst fellow-males. To be stung by a male platypus is a rare event with only a very small number of people being on the receiving end of this most reclusive creature.
In the same area of the hind foot where the male has the poisonous spur, the female platypus only develops two buds which drop off in their first year of life never to appear again. The female platypus produces a clutch of one to three eggs in late winter or spring, incubating them in an underground burrow. The eggs are 15-18 millimetres long and have a whitish, papery shell like those of lizards and snakes. The mother is believed to keep the eggs warm by placing them between her lower belly and curled-up tail for a period of about 10 or 11 days as she rests in an underground nest made of leaves or other vegetation collected from the water. The baby platypus drinks a rich milk which is secreted from two round patches of skin midway along the mother's belly. It is believed that a baby platypus feeds by slurping up milk with rhythmic sweeps of its stubby bill. When the juveniles first enter the water at the age of about four months, they are nearly (80-90%) as long as an adult. Male platypus do not help to raise the young.
In Australia, the platypus is officially classified as ‘Common but Vulnerable’. As a species, it is not currently considered to be endangered. However, platypus populations are believed to have declined or disappeared in many catchments1, particularly in urban and agricultural landscapes. In most cases, the specific underlying reasons for the reduction in numbers remain unknown. Platypus surveys have only been carried out in a few catchments in eastern Australia. It is therefore impossible to provide an accurate estimate of the total number of platypus remaining in the wild. Based on recent studies, the average platypus population density along relatively good quality streams in the foothills of Victoria's Great Dividing Range is only around one to two animals per kilometre of channel. Because platypus are predators near the top of the food chain and require large amounts of food to survive (up to about 30% of a given animal's body weight each day), it is believed that their numbers are most often limited by the availability of food, mainly in the form of bottom-dwelling aquatic invertebrates such as shrimps, worms, yabbies, pea-shell mussels, and immature and adult aquatic insects. Small frogs and fish eggs are also eaten occasionally, along with some terrestrial insects that fall into the water from overhanging vegetation.
Until the early twentieth century, platypus were widely killed for their fur. The species is now protected by law throughout Australia. Platypus are wild animals with specialised living requirements. It is illegal for members of the public to keep them in captivity. A platypus which has been accidentally captured along a stream or found wandering in an unusual place should never be taken home and treated as a pet, even for a brief time. The animal will not survive the experience. Only a small number of Australian zoos and universities hold a permit to maintain platypus in captivity for legitimate display or research purposes. Current Australian government policy does not allow this species to be taken overseas for any reason.
_______________________________
1Catchments are an area of land drained by a creek or river system, or a place set aside for collecting water which runs off the surface of the land.
Questions 1 - 5
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage
1 The appearance of the platypus caused experts to doubt it was real.
2 The amount of venom in a male platypus changes during the year.
3 Most platypus live in Eastern Australia.
4 Snake venom and platypus venom are very similar.
5 Because their environment is specialised, platypus can not be kept as pets.
Questions 6 – 9
Complete the summary.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.
Male and Female Platypus
Platypus are unique Australian animals. Although all platypus share many similarities, the male and female are somewhat different from each other. For example, on the hind feet, the male has a 6 ………………. while the young female has 7 ………………. . In the 8 ………………. the mother keeps her eggs warm and, once born, supplies her young with 9 ………………. . On the other hand, the male platypus does not help raise the young at all.
Questions 10 – 13
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 1.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
10 Even though the platypus is not endangered, it is considered ….. .
11 Platypus numbers in ….. areas have declined in many catchments.
12 Platypus numbers are low which is probably due to a lack of ….. .
13 Platypus captivity for research and study purposes requires a ….. .
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS 0984467000
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage 1.
Australia's Platypus
Of all the creatures on the earth, the Australian platypus, Ornithorhynchus paradoxus, is perhaps one of the most mysterious and reclusive. Derived from the Latin platys meaning ‘flat and broad’ and pous meaning ‘foot’, the platypus has long been an iconic symbol of Australia. Upon being discovered in Australia in the 1700s, sketches of this unusual creature were made and sent back to England whereupon they were considered by experts to be a hoax. Indeed, the incredible collection of its body parts – broad, flat tail, rubbery snout, webbed feet and short dense fur – make it one of the world’s most unusual animals.
Officially classified as a mammal, the egg-laying platypus is mostly active during the night, a nocturnal animal. As if this combination of characteristics and behaviours were not unusual enough, the platypus is the only Australian mammal known to be venomous. The male platypus has a sharply pointed, moveable spur on its hind foot which delivers a poison capable of killing smaller animals and causing severe pain to humans. The spur - about 2 centimetres in length - is quite similar to the fang of a snake and, if provoked, is used as a means of defence. Those who have been stung by a platypus’ spur report an immediate swelling around the wound followed by increased swelling throughout the affected limb. Excruciating, almost paralysing pain in the affected area accompanies the sting which, in some victims has been known to last for a period of months. One report from a victim who was stung in the palm of the hand states that “…the spur could not be pulled out of the hand until the platypus was killed.” During the breeding season, the amount of venom in the male platypus increases. This has led some zoologists to theorise that the poisonous spur is primarily for asserting dominance amongst fellow-males. To be stung by a male platypus is a rare event with only a very small number of people being on the receiving end of this most reclusive creature.
In the same area of the hind foot where the male has the poisonous spur, the female platypus only develops two buds which drop off in their first year of life never to appear again. The female platypus produces a clutch of one to three eggs in late winter or spring, incubating them in an underground burrow. The eggs are 15-18 millimetres long and have a whitish, papery shell like those of lizards and snakes. The mother is believed to keep the eggs warm by placing them between her lower belly and curled-up tail for a period of about 10 or 11 days as she rests in an underground nest made of leaves or other vegetation collected from the water. The baby platypus drinks a rich milk which is secreted from two round patches of skin midway along the mother's belly. It is believed that a baby platypus feeds by slurping up milk with rhythmic sweeps of its stubby bill. When the juveniles first enter the water at the age of about four months, they are nearly (80-90%) as long as an adult. Male platypus do not help to raise the young.
In Australia, the platypus is officially classified as ‘Common but Vulnerable’. As a species, it is not currently considered to be endangered. However, platypus populations are believed to have declined or disappeared in many catchments1, particularly in urban and agricultural landscapes. In most cases, the specific underlying reasons for the reduction in numbers remain unknown. Platypus surveys have only been carried out in a few catchments in eastern Australia. It is therefore impossible to provide an accurate estimate of the total number of platypus remaining in the wild. Based on recent studies, the average platypus population density along relatively good quality streams in the foothills of Victoria's Great Dividing Range is only around one to two animals per kilometre of channel. Because platypus are predators near the top of the food chain and require large amounts of food to survive (up to about 30% of a given animal's body weight each day), it is believed that their numbers are most often limited by the availability of food, mainly in the form of bottom-dwelling aquatic invertebrates such as shrimps, worms, yabbies, pea-shell mussels, and immature and adult aquatic insects. Small frogs and fish eggs are also eaten occasionally, along with some terrestrial insects that fall into the water from overhanging vegetation.
Until the early twentieth century, platypus were widely killed for their fur. The species is now protected by law throughout Australia. Platypus are wild animals with specialised living requirements. It is illegal for members of the public to keep them in captivity. A platypus which has been accidentally captured along a stream or found wandering in an unusual place should never be taken home and treated as a pet, even for a brief time. The animal will not survive the experience. Only a small number of Australian zoos and universities hold a permit to maintain platypus in captivity for legitimate display or research purposes. Current Australian government policy does not allow this species to be taken overseas for any reason.
_______________________________
1Catchments are an area of land drained by a creek or river system, or a place set aside for collecting water which runs off the surface of the land.
Questions 1 - 5
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage
1 The appearance of the platypus caused experts to doubt it was real.
2 The amount of venom in a male platypus changes during the year.
3 Most platypus live in Eastern Australia.
4 Snake venom and platypus venom are very similar.
5 Because their environment is specialised, platypus can not be kept as pets.
Questions 6 – 9
Complete the summary.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.
Male and Female Platypus
Platypus are unique Australian animals. Although all platypus share many similarities, the male and female are somewhat different from each other. For example, on the hind feet, the male has a 6 ………………. while the young female has 7 ………………. . In the 8 ………………. the mother keeps her eggs warm and, once born, supplies her young with 9 ………………. . On the other hand, the male platypus does not help raise the young at all.
Questions 10 – 13
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 1.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
10 Even though the platypus is not endangered, it is considered ….. .
11 Platypus numbers in ….. areas have declined in many catchments.
12 Platypus numbers are low which is probably due to a lack of ….. .
13 Platypus captivity for research and study purposes requires a ….. .
IELTS LISTENING TEST 3
Practice Listening Test 71
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM 0984467000
SECTION 1 Questions 1-5
Questions 1-5
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
1 East Point Health club has
A three nutritionists. B four nutritionists. C five nutritionists.
2 The man says he needs a nutritionist because he
A wants to increase his weight. B has been gaining weight. C wants to exercise.
3 The receptionist says that the ‘Unique Health Plan’ includes
A lists of health products. B suggested vitamins. C exercise and diet.
4 The Ashton Centre is located on
A Judith Street. B Vale Road. C Brown Street.
5 To join the club, the man must
A complete an application over the phone.
B provide official identification.
C download the application form.
Questions 6 – 10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
East-Point Health Club - New Member Application -
Customer Name: 6 ………………….
Membership Type: (circle one)
Date of enrolment: 7 ………………….
Member’s address details: 8 ………………….
Postcode: 9 ………………….
Telephone: 78 394 902
First Consultation Details: Date: October 15
Time: 10 ………………….
Nutritionist: Dr. Jones
Other details: Wife to attend session
SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11 – 16
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Background Information:
Global Educational Conference
Conference number 10th anniversary
Year of first conference: 11 ………………………..
Frequency of conferences: held every year
Location of first conference: 12 ………………………..
Length of conferences: 5 days
Focus for this year: 13 ………………………..
Questions 14 – 17
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Accommodation Options for Global Educational Conference
Name of establishment Distance from conference Special offer
Motis 3 kms 15% discount
Regent 10 kms 14 ……………………..
Embassy 15 …………………….. 16 ……………………..
Crown 15 kms Will pay for
17 ……………………..
Questions 18 – 20
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
18 Dr Fell’s presentation will be especially interesting for
A primary school teachers. B high school teachers.
C university teachers. D all teachers.
19 The speaker recommends Dr. Foster’s speech because
A they are personal friends. B he has travelled a lot.
C he takes a long-term view of education. D his speeches are funny.
20 Evening meals will be
A paid by a voucher system B up to the individual to organise.
C supplied by the conference centre. D catered for by a company.
SECTION 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21 – 23
The students mention three reasons for starting a study group.
Which THREE reasons did the students give?
Choose THREE letters A-G.
Reasons for Test Preparation Study Group
A listen again to lectures
B better lecture notes
C personal development
D develop interpersonal skills
E more interesting
F improve communication skills
G can test each other
Questions 24 – 27
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Study Group Schedule
Presenter Topic Date
Christine Media Design 24 …………………………
Austin 25 ………………………… 1st September
Richard Organisational Communication 26 …………………………
Christine and Ann Research Methods 16th September
27 ………………………… Technology and Change 23rd September
Questions 28 – 30
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Two Weeks before Exam:
Approach to take:
- create questions from key points in 28 …………………..
- bring class notes
- create written summaries
Questions in test:
- multiple choice
- 29 …………………..
- longer, written paragraph responses
Study session details:
- number per week: 30 …………………..
- length: 30-40 minutes
SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31 – 33
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Irrigation: Past and Present
Mesopotamian farmers:
• used irrigation around 6000 years ago
• diverted water from Euphrates using 31 …………………..
• first irrigation-based society
Today’s farmers:
• more dependence on irrigation
• 40 percent of all food grown in 32 …………………..
• since 1950, irrigation has brought huge increases in 33 …………………..
• 90% of developing countries water used for irrigation
Questions 34-40
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Irrigation Systems
System Type Description Advantages Disadvantages
Surface • fields flooded
• water moves across the land by 34…………….
• most common irrigation system • relatively 35 …………... • plants absorb a fraction of water
• often wastes and pollutes water
• causes erosion and salinisation
Drip • delivers water, drop by drop to 36 …………...
• water travels via plastic tubes and emerges through small holes
• environment moisture is ideal and usually results in 37 …………...
• reduces water use by 30 to 70 percent • quite expensive – only used by 1 percent of world’s irrigated fields
Sprinkler • perform almost as well as drip irrigation
• high pressure
• water is sprayed high into air which leads to high coverage • plants absorb 90-95 percent of water spread by 38 …………... sprinklers • high costs
• water evaporates and/or blows off course
Treadle pump • looks like an
39 ………....…...
• user peddles on two bamboo poles
• suction pulls water into cylinders and dispenses into a channel
• used 4 to 6 hours/day • created surplus vegetables
• costs $35 but increased per person net income by 40 …………...
• have injected $350 million into local economy
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM 0984467000
SECTION 1 Questions 1-5
Questions 1-5
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
1 East Point Health club has
A three nutritionists. B four nutritionists. C five nutritionists.
2 The man says he needs a nutritionist because he
A wants to increase his weight. B has been gaining weight. C wants to exercise.
3 The receptionist says that the ‘Unique Health Plan’ includes
A lists of health products. B suggested vitamins. C exercise and diet.
4 The Ashton Centre is located on
A Judith Street. B Vale Road. C Brown Street.
5 To join the club, the man must
A complete an application over the phone.
B provide official identification.
C download the application form.
Questions 6 – 10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
East-Point Health Club - New Member Application -
Customer Name: 6 ………………….
Membership Type: (circle one)
Date of enrolment: 7 ………………….
Member’s address details: 8 ………………….
Postcode: 9 ………………….
Telephone: 78 394 902
First Consultation Details: Date: October 15
Time: 10 ………………….
Nutritionist: Dr. Jones
Other details: Wife to attend session
SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11 – 16
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Background Information:
Global Educational Conference
Conference number 10th anniversary
Year of first conference: 11 ………………………..
Frequency of conferences: held every year
Location of first conference: 12 ………………………..
Length of conferences: 5 days
Focus for this year: 13 ………………………..
Questions 14 – 17
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Accommodation Options for Global Educational Conference
Name of establishment Distance from conference Special offer
Motis 3 kms 15% discount
Regent 10 kms 14 ……………………..
Embassy 15 …………………….. 16 ……………………..
Crown 15 kms Will pay for
17 ……………………..
Questions 18 – 20
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
18 Dr Fell’s presentation will be especially interesting for
A primary school teachers. B high school teachers.
C university teachers. D all teachers.
19 The speaker recommends Dr. Foster’s speech because
A they are personal friends. B he has travelled a lot.
C he takes a long-term view of education. D his speeches are funny.
20 Evening meals will be
A paid by a voucher system B up to the individual to organise.
C supplied by the conference centre. D catered for by a company.
SECTION 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21 – 23
The students mention three reasons for starting a study group.
Which THREE reasons did the students give?
Choose THREE letters A-G.
Reasons for Test Preparation Study Group
A listen again to lectures
B better lecture notes
C personal development
D develop interpersonal skills
E more interesting
F improve communication skills
G can test each other
Questions 24 – 27
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Study Group Schedule
Presenter Topic Date
Christine Media Design 24 …………………………
Austin 25 ………………………… 1st September
Richard Organisational Communication 26 …………………………
Christine and Ann Research Methods 16th September
27 ………………………… Technology and Change 23rd September
Questions 28 – 30
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Two Weeks before Exam:
Approach to take:
- create questions from key points in 28 …………………..
- bring class notes
- create written summaries
Questions in test:
- multiple choice
- 29 …………………..
- longer, written paragraph responses
Study session details:
- number per week: 30 …………………..
- length: 30-40 minutes
SECTION 4 Questions 31-40
Questions 31 – 33
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Irrigation: Past and Present
Mesopotamian farmers:
• used irrigation around 6000 years ago
• diverted water from Euphrates using 31 …………………..
• first irrigation-based society
Today’s farmers:
• more dependence on irrigation
• 40 percent of all food grown in 32 …………………..
• since 1950, irrigation has brought huge increases in 33 …………………..
• 90% of developing countries water used for irrigation
Questions 34-40
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Irrigation Systems
System Type Description Advantages Disadvantages
Surface • fields flooded
• water moves across the land by 34…………….
• most common irrigation system • relatively 35 …………... • plants absorb a fraction of water
• often wastes and pollutes water
• causes erosion and salinisation
Drip • delivers water, drop by drop to 36 …………...
• water travels via plastic tubes and emerges through small holes
• environment moisture is ideal and usually results in 37 …………...
• reduces water use by 30 to 70 percent • quite expensive – only used by 1 percent of world’s irrigated fields
Sprinkler • perform almost as well as drip irrigation
• high pressure
• water is sprayed high into air which leads to high coverage • plants absorb 90-95 percent of water spread by 38 …………... sprinklers • high costs
• water evaporates and/or blows off course
Treadle pump • looks like an
39 ………....…...
• user peddles on two bamboo poles
• suction pulls water into cylinders and dispenses into a channel
• used 4 to 6 hours/day • created surplus vegetables
• costs $35 but increased per person net income by 40 …………...
• have injected $350 million into local economy
Thứ Hai, 6 tháng 9, 2010
SPEAKING IELTS TESTS
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM -0984467000
Page 37
181. A Happy Event (August 11, 2007) (Probably no longer used) (Moved to Topics #211 & #212)
182. Some Advice You Received (3) (Prob. Oct. 2008) (Probably no longer used)
183. A Traffic Jam (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
184. A Healthy Habit (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
185. An Interesting Talk (Speech) (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 38
186. A Childhood Song or Melody (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
187. A Childhood Toy (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
188. An Historic Site (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
189. A Library (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
190. An Advertisement (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 39
191. A Family Member (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
192. A Course You Would Like to Do (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
193. A Piece of Good News by Phone (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
194. A Future Change (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
195. Your Favourite Part of Your Hometown (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 40
196. A Childhood Activity (Feb. 7, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
197. No Topic
198. A Conversation You Had (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
199. A Machine or Electronic Device (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
200. A Film (4) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 41
201. A Job (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
202. A Leisure Activity (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
203. A Newspaper or Magazine Article (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
204. A Party (Apr. 25, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
205. A Picnic or Outdoor Meal (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 42
206. A Trip (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
207. A Place with a Lot of Water (2) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
208. A Science Lesson (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
209. An Exciting Sport (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
210. Someone Who Gave You Important Help (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 43
211. A Recent Happy Event (2) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
212. A Happy Childhood Memory (2) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
213. A TV or Radio Program (Jan, 2009 ?) Probably no longer used.
214. An Intelligent Person (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
215. A Book You Would Like to Read Again (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 44
216. A Shop (Sept 5, 2009) Still in Use
217. Your Plans For the Future (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
218. A Competition Winner (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
219. A Family Photo (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
220. Living in a Place in Another Country (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 45
221. A Gift You Gave (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
222. A Car or Vehicle You Would Like to Have (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
223. A Family Friend (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
224. A Skill You Recently Learned (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
225. A Group Activity (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 46
226. A Restaurant You Like (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
227. The Perfect Climate (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
228. A Job You Did Quickly (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
229. A Book You Read when You were a Child (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
230. Your Favourite Subject at School (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
Page 47
231. A Special Meal (2) (Oct 31, 2009)
232. An Old Person (Nov 14, 2009)
233. A Person who Visited your Home (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
234. Something You Made Yourself (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
235. A City You have Visited or Lived In (2) (Oct 31, 2009)
Page 48
236. A Letter or Card You Received (Oct 31, 2009)
237. No Topic
238. No Topic
239. No Topic
240. An Old Thing in Your Family (Oct 31, 2009)
Page 49
241. A Public Event (2) (Nov 21, 2009)
242. A Trip with a Friend (Dec. 3, 2009)
243. A Modern Building (Jan. 9, 2010)
244. A Wild Animal (2) (Jan. 9, 2010)
245. A Famous Foreign Person (Jan. 9, 2010)
Page 50
246. A Garden or Park (2) (Jan. 9, 2010)
247. Last Weekend (2) (Nov. 2009)
248. A Relaxing Day (Jan. 9, 2010)
249. An Unused Thing (Jan. 9, 2010)
250. No topic
Page 51
251. A Person You Have Lived With (Jan. 9, 2010)
252. A Childhood School (Jan. 9, 2010)
253. A Walk with a Friend (Jan. 23, 2010)
254. A TV Program that You Didn't Like (Jan. 9, 2010)
255. A Well-known Story from Your Country (Jan. 9, 2010)
Page 52
256. An Exciting Message (Jan. 23, 2010)
257. A Family (2) (Jan. 23, 2010)
258. An Artist You Admire (Jan. 23, 2010)
259. No topic
260. No topic
Page 53
261. No topic
262. Something Healthy You Would Recommend (2) (Jan. 23, 2010)
263. A TV Program You Enjoy (Jan. 30, 2010)
264. A Place Where You Learned about the Past (Jan. 30, 2010)
265. A Sport You Would Like to be Good At (May, 2010)
Page 54
266. Recent Changes to Your Hometown (May, 2010)
267. A Person You Helped (3) (May, 2010)
268. A Piece of Equipment (2) (May, 2010)
269. Using Computers (May, 2010)
270. A Type of Music that is Popular in Your Country (May 2010)
Page 55
271. A Friend You Admire (May, 2010)
272. A News Story that Made You Happy (May, 2010)
273. A Childhood Toy (May, 2010)
274. A TV or Radio Presenter (May, 2010)
275. A Long Journey (May, 2010)
Page 56
276. A Hobby (May, 2010)
277. An Interesting Job (May, 2010)
278. A Film (5) (May, 2010)
Page 37
181. A Happy Event (August 11, 2007) (Probably no longer used) (Moved to Topics #211 & #212)
182. Some Advice You Received (3) (Prob. Oct. 2008) (Probably no longer used)
183. A Traffic Jam (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
184. A Healthy Habit (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
185. An Interesting Talk (Speech) (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 38
186. A Childhood Song or Melody (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
187. A Childhood Toy (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
188. An Historic Site (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
189. A Library (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
190. An Advertisement (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 39
191. A Family Member (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
192. A Course You Would Like to Do (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
193. A Piece of Good News by Phone (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
194. A Future Change (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
195. Your Favourite Part of Your Hometown (Jan. 10, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 40
196. A Childhood Activity (Feb. 7, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
197. No Topic
198. A Conversation You Had (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
199. A Machine or Electronic Device (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
200. A Film (4) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 41
201. A Job (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
202. A Leisure Activity (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
203. A Newspaper or Magazine Article (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
204. A Party (Apr. 25, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
205. A Picnic or Outdoor Meal (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 42
206. A Trip (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
207. A Place with a Lot of Water (2) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
208. A Science Lesson (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
209. An Exciting Sport (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
210. Someone Who Gave You Important Help (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 43
211. A Recent Happy Event (2) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
212. A Happy Childhood Memory (2) (May 9, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
213. A TV or Radio Program (Jan, 2009 ?) Probably no longer used.
214. An Intelligent Person (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
215. A Book You Would Like to Read Again (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 44
216. A Shop (Sept 5, 2009) Still in Use
217. Your Plans For the Future (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
218. A Competition Winner (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
219. A Family Photo (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
220. Living in a Place in Another Country (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 45
221. A Gift You Gave (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
222. A Car or Vehicle You Would Like to Have (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
223. A Family Friend (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
224. A Skill You Recently Learned (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
225. A Group Activity (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
Page 46
226. A Restaurant You Like (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
227. The Perfect Climate (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
228. A Job You Did Quickly (Sept 5, 2009) (Probably no longer used)
229. A Book You Read when You were a Child (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
230. Your Favourite Subject at School (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
Page 47
231. A Special Meal (2) (Oct 31, 2009)
232. An Old Person (Nov 14, 2009)
233. A Person who Visited your Home (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
234. Something You Made Yourself (2) (Nov 14, 2009)
235. A City You have Visited or Lived In (2) (Oct 31, 2009)
Page 48
236. A Letter or Card You Received (Oct 31, 2009)
237. No Topic
238. No Topic
239. No Topic
240. An Old Thing in Your Family (Oct 31, 2009)
Page 49
241. A Public Event (2) (Nov 21, 2009)
242. A Trip with a Friend (Dec. 3, 2009)
243. A Modern Building (Jan. 9, 2010)
244. A Wild Animal (2) (Jan. 9, 2010)
245. A Famous Foreign Person (Jan. 9, 2010)
Page 50
246. A Garden or Park (2) (Jan. 9, 2010)
247. Last Weekend (2) (Nov. 2009)
248. A Relaxing Day (Jan. 9, 2010)
249. An Unused Thing (Jan. 9, 2010)
250. No topic
Page 51
251. A Person You Have Lived With (Jan. 9, 2010)
252. A Childhood School (Jan. 9, 2010)
253. A Walk with a Friend (Jan. 23, 2010)
254. A TV Program that You Didn't Like (Jan. 9, 2010)
255. A Well-known Story from Your Country (Jan. 9, 2010)
Page 52
256. An Exciting Message (Jan. 23, 2010)
257. A Family (2) (Jan. 23, 2010)
258. An Artist You Admire (Jan. 23, 2010)
259. No topic
260. No topic
Page 53
261. No topic
262. Something Healthy You Would Recommend (2) (Jan. 23, 2010)
263. A TV Program You Enjoy (Jan. 30, 2010)
264. A Place Where You Learned about the Past (Jan. 30, 2010)
265. A Sport You Would Like to be Good At (May, 2010)
Page 54
266. Recent Changes to Your Hometown (May, 2010)
267. A Person You Helped (3) (May, 2010)
268. A Piece of Equipment (2) (May, 2010)
269. Using Computers (May, 2010)
270. A Type of Music that is Popular in Your Country (May 2010)
Page 55
271. A Friend You Admire (May, 2010)
272. A News Story that Made You Happy (May, 2010)
273. A Childhood Toy (May, 2010)
274. A TV or Radio Presenter (May, 2010)
275. A Long Journey (May, 2010)
Page 56
276. A Hobby (May, 2010)
277. An Interesting Job (May, 2010)
278. A Film (5) (May, 2010)
PRACTICE TEST
IELTS PRACTICE TEST 49
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM - 0984467000
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 - 13
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE
It is one of the few places where you will be able to spot them all at the same time… the
Arabian wolf, an African cheetah, an Arabian leopard, an oryx, a gazelle. These are just some of the animals, which, on the brink of extinction, are now getting a new lease of life thanks to the exemplary work being done at the Breeding Centre for Endangered Arabian Wildlife in Sharjah.
Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates. The Breeding Centre’s expertise and facilities have made it a prime destination for illegally imported animals confiscated by UAE and Sharjah authorities. In the last four years, more than 900 mammals and reptiles and 969 birds have arrived at the centre, including 25 North African cheetahs, Houbara bustard and falcons, lions, a baby Nile crocodile and a Burmese python that was left in a rental car at the airport.
The 25 cheetahs were all imported illegally into the UAE and were intercepted at the UAE harbour and airport entry points. They nearly all arrived malnourished, dehydrated and highly stressed after long voyages stuffed into boxes, crates and suitcases. Now they are bright and full of energy. The Centre’s efforts have also been rewarded when the first cheetah mating took place at the end of 2002. Playing matchmaker with these beautiful creatures is no easy task – successful breeding requires considerable patience and intimate knowledge of each animal’s personality, and it is the result of intensive and expert management of each animal within the group as well as of the group as a whole.
Because this group was still young and inexperienced in courtship matters, the keepers had to make the introductions only after careful planning and management, much like the lead role in a Jane Austen novel. The female cheetahs were initially intimidated by the presence of the male; however, as they advance to oestrus, the roles are reversed and the male cheetah becomes too wary to approach during the female’s most receptive phase of the cycle. It is the responsibility of the keeper therefore to monitor each individual and to be able to respond to any indication from the cheetahs that the time is right for introducing a pair. The close bond that invariably develops between the keeper and the cheetahs enables the keeper to spot even the most subtle signs from the animals in their care. The trust between keeper and animal has also allowed the opportunity to study cellular changes in the sexual organs of the females during the hormonal cycles that occur prior to reproduction.
The Breeding Centre’s cheetahs are also participants in the European breeding programme, which aims to ensure that the genetic diversity of this endangered species is maintained and expanded by breeding as many founder animals as possible to introduce new bloodlines into the captive population. In this way, the group held at the centre plays a very important role in the future health of the international captive population, as they are potentially all new founders.
Also very important for the Sharjah Breeding Centre is the leopard-breeding programme. The Arabian leopard, Panthera pardus nimr, is critically endangered around the world and particularly in the Arabian peninsula, where it was once found throughout the coastal mountain ranges. Activities like hunting, trapping and habitat destruction has reduced their range to a few isolated and fragmented populations in Oman, Yemen and Saudi Arabia.
In the 1980s, a captive breeding programme was established near Muscat with the capture of three leopards in southwestern Oman. The breeding programme in the UAE was initiated by the Arabian Leopard Trust and started with the arrival of two mature specimens: a male Arabian leopard from Yemen and a female on breeding loan from Oman in 1995. The arrival of these two animals led to the construction of the Breeding Centre in which the leopard has played the role of flagship species.
Today there are twelve leopards at the Breeding centre, eight of which have been born at the centre since the first cub in 1998. Once more, the secret to the centre’s success is the close relationship between animal and keeper. The leopard is usually shy and secretive with people around, but here they react positively to the presence of their keepers, approaching the fence so they can be talked to or scratched behind an ear.
The bond is particularly important during breeding season, when keepers decide to introduce pairs to each other. Male leopards are known to have killed their partners on introduction, so it is essential for the keeper to understand the leopards’ behaviour to decide when it is safe to do so. The trust is also important if keepers need to enter dens to check on and monitor the cub’s growth. Leopard females have been known to kill their cubs if the dens have been disturbed, but the centre’s leopards are quite comfortable with the staff handling the new generation of cubs.
Source: The Gulf News, UAE
Questions 1- 8
Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the animals
(A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your answer sheet.
Write:
A if the statement refers to cheetahs at the Breeding Centre.
B if the statement refers to leopards at the Breeding Centre.
C if the statement refers to both cheetahs and leopards at the Breeding Centre.
D If the statement refers to neither cheetahs nor leopards at the Breeding Centre.
Example: These animals are endangered Answer C
1 These animals were smuggled into the UAE.
2 At first these animals did not adapt to life at the Sharjah Breeding Centre.
3 These animals are regarded as the most important animal at the Centre.
4 Half of these animals were born at the Breeding centre.
5 These animals can be dangerous to one another.
6 The role of the keeper is vital in the breeding programme of these animals.
7 The first of these animals at the Breeding Centre were relatively young.
8 It is normally difficult for humans to approach these animals.
Questions 9 – 13
Complete the summary below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
9 – 13 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them all.
Example The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a __________ of animals including birds,… Answer variety
The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a variety of animals including birds, mammals and
(9) __________. As its name suggests, the Centre is primarily involved in breeding and
(10) __________ the numbers of the species housed there whilst still maintaining the (11)_________ of bloodlines in order to retain genetic health. In spite of problems involvingthe complex (12) __________ of the animals, a fair amount of (13) __________ has been achieved with North African cheetahs and Arabian leopards.
reptiles variety behaviour success
creating expanding difficulty diversity
action habitat season fish
change working programme
THAY HAI CHUYEN LUYEN THI IELTS CO BAO DAM - 0984467000
READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1 - 13
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE
It is one of the few places where you will be able to spot them all at the same time… the
Arabian wolf, an African cheetah, an Arabian leopard, an oryx, a gazelle. These are just some of the animals, which, on the brink of extinction, are now getting a new lease of life thanks to the exemplary work being done at the Breeding Centre for Endangered Arabian Wildlife in Sharjah.
Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates. The Breeding Centre’s expertise and facilities have made it a prime destination for illegally imported animals confiscated by UAE and Sharjah authorities. In the last four years, more than 900 mammals and reptiles and 969 birds have arrived at the centre, including 25 North African cheetahs, Houbara bustard and falcons, lions, a baby Nile crocodile and a Burmese python that was left in a rental car at the airport.
The 25 cheetahs were all imported illegally into the UAE and were intercepted at the UAE harbour and airport entry points. They nearly all arrived malnourished, dehydrated and highly stressed after long voyages stuffed into boxes, crates and suitcases. Now they are bright and full of energy. The Centre’s efforts have also been rewarded when the first cheetah mating took place at the end of 2002. Playing matchmaker with these beautiful creatures is no easy task – successful breeding requires considerable patience and intimate knowledge of each animal’s personality, and it is the result of intensive and expert management of each animal within the group as well as of the group as a whole.
Because this group was still young and inexperienced in courtship matters, the keepers had to make the introductions only after careful planning and management, much like the lead role in a Jane Austen novel. The female cheetahs were initially intimidated by the presence of the male; however, as they advance to oestrus, the roles are reversed and the male cheetah becomes too wary to approach during the female’s most receptive phase of the cycle. It is the responsibility of the keeper therefore to monitor each individual and to be able to respond to any indication from the cheetahs that the time is right for introducing a pair. The close bond that invariably develops between the keeper and the cheetahs enables the keeper to spot even the most subtle signs from the animals in their care. The trust between keeper and animal has also allowed the opportunity to study cellular changes in the sexual organs of the females during the hormonal cycles that occur prior to reproduction.
The Breeding Centre’s cheetahs are also participants in the European breeding programme, which aims to ensure that the genetic diversity of this endangered species is maintained and expanded by breeding as many founder animals as possible to introduce new bloodlines into the captive population. In this way, the group held at the centre plays a very important role in the future health of the international captive population, as they are potentially all new founders.
Also very important for the Sharjah Breeding Centre is the leopard-breeding programme. The Arabian leopard, Panthera pardus nimr, is critically endangered around the world and particularly in the Arabian peninsula, where it was once found throughout the coastal mountain ranges. Activities like hunting, trapping and habitat destruction has reduced their range to a few isolated and fragmented populations in Oman, Yemen and Saudi Arabia.
In the 1980s, a captive breeding programme was established near Muscat with the capture of three leopards in southwestern Oman. The breeding programme in the UAE was initiated by the Arabian Leopard Trust and started with the arrival of two mature specimens: a male Arabian leopard from Yemen and a female on breeding loan from Oman in 1995. The arrival of these two animals led to the construction of the Breeding Centre in which the leopard has played the role of flagship species.
Today there are twelve leopards at the Breeding centre, eight of which have been born at the centre since the first cub in 1998. Once more, the secret to the centre’s success is the close relationship between animal and keeper. The leopard is usually shy and secretive with people around, but here they react positively to the presence of their keepers, approaching the fence so they can be talked to or scratched behind an ear.
The bond is particularly important during breeding season, when keepers decide to introduce pairs to each other. Male leopards are known to have killed their partners on introduction, so it is essential for the keeper to understand the leopards’ behaviour to decide when it is safe to do so. The trust is also important if keepers need to enter dens to check on and monitor the cub’s growth. Leopard females have been known to kill their cubs if the dens have been disturbed, but the centre’s leopards are quite comfortable with the staff handling the new generation of cubs.
Source: The Gulf News, UAE
Questions 1- 8
Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the animals
(A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your answer sheet.
Write:
A if the statement refers to cheetahs at the Breeding Centre.
B if the statement refers to leopards at the Breeding Centre.
C if the statement refers to both cheetahs and leopards at the Breeding Centre.
D If the statement refers to neither cheetahs nor leopards at the Breeding Centre.
Example: These animals are endangered Answer C
1 These animals were smuggled into the UAE.
2 At first these animals did not adapt to life at the Sharjah Breeding Centre.
3 These animals are regarded as the most important animal at the Centre.
4 Half of these animals were born at the Breeding centre.
5 These animals can be dangerous to one another.
6 The role of the keeper is vital in the breeding programme of these animals.
7 The first of these animals at the Breeding Centre were relatively young.
8 It is normally difficult for humans to approach these animals.
Questions 9 – 13
Complete the summary below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes
9 – 13 on your answer sheet.
NB There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them all.
Example The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a __________ of animals including birds,… Answer variety
The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a variety of animals including birds, mammals and
(9) __________. As its name suggests, the Centre is primarily involved in breeding and
(10) __________ the numbers of the species housed there whilst still maintaining the (11)_________ of bloodlines in order to retain genetic health. In spite of problems involvingthe complex (12) __________ of the animals, a fair amount of (13) __________ has been achieved with North African cheetahs and Arabian leopards.
reptiles variety behaviour success
creating expanding difficulty diversity
action habitat season fish
change working programme
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